Are "vast majority" claims defined and documented?

Dr. Habermas has astonishingly now claimed that he never gave any definition of "the vast majority of scholars" and that, except for the empty tomb (which he emphasizes is not a minimal fact anyway) he never made any head count of how many scholars affirm a proposition. Here is a blog post I did on this issue recently, with links.https://lydiaswebpage.blogspot.com/2025/08/habermas-now-says-that-he-never-made.htmlIn this video I discuss this same topic, what we can say with confidence, and what may be the explanation. It's clearly false that Dr. Habermas never made such claims. He definitely did. That can be documented. But perhaps he did not, in fact, make rigorous head counts. It's especially noteworthy that Volume 3 of his magnum opus, which is supposedly all about scholarly views, explicitly says that it does not document head counts. What, then, might have led to his implications, over decades, that he did so?Those using the minimal facts argument for the resurrection need to face this issue, which affects the argument even taken on its own terms.